Browse all practice questions for the Field Medical Training Battalion (FMTB) West DHA TCCC Practice Exam. Search by topic, open any question and review its full explanation, then test yourself in the practice quiz.

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  • Which is a sign of head injury?
  • By what time after injury should TXA be administered at the latest?
  • What is the first level described in the AVPU scale?
  • For intramuscular administration, ertapenem should be reconstituted with which diluent?
  • Which finding is most consistent with a sucking chest wound?
  • Which statement is characteristic of mild traumatic brain injury (TBI)?
  • Which scenario best illustrates polytrauma?
  • Memory loss duration that characterizes moderate TBI is:
  • IV access is indicated in which situation?
  • Which physical finding strongly suggests a pelvic fracture?
  • Which kit includes vented chest seal among its listed contents?
  • To what temperature should the blood be heated before administration?
  • Which statement correctly identifies the three phases of Tactical Combat Casualty Care (TCCC)?
  • CASEVAC refers to which of the following?
  • Refractory shock should be addressed with which technique?
  • What is the correct method to administer calcium according to the protocol?
  • Which wound closure device is best suited for scalp, neck, or extremities and some Junctional wounds such as groin and axilla?
  • An improvised tourniquet should have which feature?
  • How long should you take to apply a tourniquet?
  • Which of the following is an indication for oxygen administration?
  • Which of the following is a sign of cerebral herniation?
  • Pupillary dilation is a sign of head injury.
  • Which treatment option is recommended for cerebral herniation?
  • Which item list correctly represents JFAK contents?
  • What should you use to wrap open areas in an amputation injury?
  • Which symptom is commonly associated with mild TBI?
  • Which finding would prompt suspicion of a penetrating eye injury?
  • What percentage of total body area corresponds to the groin and buttocks in the Rules of Nines?
  • Transbuccal administration involves placing medication between which structures?
  • What does the term 'Double dart' refer to in refractory shock management?
  • Which is a correct description of casualty communication?
  • After covering a burn with a dry sterile dressing, which should the casualty be placed in to minimize heat loss?
  • If clothing is stuck to a burn, what should you do?
  • Which device is correctly identified as a junctional tourniquet?
  • In which scenario is the recovery position indicated?
  • Which description characterizes a closed head injury?
  • Which activity is explicitly part of Phase 3 (TACEVAC)?
  • Which of the following is a sign associated with life-threatening bleeding?
  • What is essential at a CCP to facilitate casualty movement?
  • Which intramuscular site is described as the center of the upper outer quadrant of the gluteal region?
  • What is recommended to remove from the casualty during initial burn management?
  • What is the recommended rate for breaths when delivering breaths with a bag-valve-mask?
  • When penetrating eye injury is suspected, which action is recommended?
  • In the standard triage order, which category comes first?
  • JTS stands for which phrase?
  • Which option describes the correct phrasing for the document used to record interventions and medications?
  • How long are you holding pressure for a wound?
  • Which of the following is a Needle-D size listed?
  • What is the recommended administration rate for methylprednisolone in this context?
  • X-stat is best described as which of the following?
  • If tension pneumothorax symptoms recur after the initial needle decompression, what is the recommended action?
  • In the Rules of Nines, what percentage is assigned to the front and back of the torso?
  • Which of the following is a contraindication to Meloxicam use?
  • Which is a sign of open pneumothorax?
  • What is the X-stat device best described as?
  • How should amputated parts be transported for preservation?
  • MEDEVAC is defined as which of the following?
  • Which of the following is listed as a pulse location?
  • What are the two methods to assess airway, and which one do you use when suspecting a c-spine injury?
  • Which of the following describes a criterion for moderate TBI?
  • What to do with wounds with impaled objects?
  • A MIST report documents MOI, injuries sustained, signs and symptoms, and what else?
  • Which of the following is a cause of altered mental status?
  • What is the meaning of the Minimal triage category?
  • When using battery-powered IV warming devices, what is the recommended flow rate and target core temperature?
  • What is the recommended epinephrine dose for adult anaphylaxis and the preferred route with repetition?
  • Which of the following is also listed as a TXA indication?
  • Which of the following is a sign that the airway may be blocked?
  • Which of the following is a late sign of tension pneumothorax?
  • If casualty is unconscious, place in what position?
  • Which condition is a contraindication to OTFC use?
  • A CCP should be located near natural lines of drift to achieve what?
  • Which statement correctly describes the indications for methylprednisolone in this setting?
  • Which card is used to determine blood type quickly?
  • Which line in the 9-Line Medevac format communicates the security of the pick-up site?
  • Which form is used to document all interventions and medications?
  • Which of the following is a common sign of a closed fracture?
  • Which kit explicitly includes a bag-valve-mask (BVM) for ventilation?
  • For burns greater than 20% TBSA, what action should be taken as soon as IV/IO access is established?
  • A burn that extends through subcutaneous tissue into fascia, muscle, and bone is classified as which degree?
  • Which symptom combination describes an anaphylactic transfusion reaction?
  • IO indications include which of the following?
  • Which term describes injuries to more than one body system?
  • What is the maximum total dose of Naloxone?
  • Casualties with altered mental status should immediately have which action performed?
  • Which of the following is a sign of hemorrhagic shock?
  • Which item is included in CMC contents?
  • What is the dosing and route for ertapenem?
  • Line 5 of the 9-Line Medevac format describes the number of casualties by what?
  • What is the thawed shelf life of plasma?
  • Which item is included in CLS contents but not in JFAK contents?
  • Which statement correctly defines a third-degree burn?
  • Which scenario indicates the need to pursue IO access rather than continuing IV attempts?
  • After packing a wound and applying pressure, which action should be performed next?
  • What is the initial IV/IO fluid rate for burn victims with TBSA 25% and weight between 40 and 80 kg?
  • How should amputated parts be transported?
  • Which sign suggests possible distal neurovascular compromise in an open fracture?
  • Which of the following is NOT a sign of respiratory distress?
  • What are the three objectives of TCCC?
  • Which statement is true about Urgent, Priority, and Routine time windows?
  • Leakage of cerebrospinal fluid from ears or nose is called
  • In the TXA protocol, what is the recommended dose and route for administration?
  • Which scenario indicates a cricothyrotomy?
  • The acronym JTS corresponds to which phrase?
  • Which combination of signs is commonly observed in respiratory distress?
  • Placement of a deliberate tourniquet is described as being placed...
  • The acronym JTS represents which phrase in the field context?
  • Which device is used for pelvic stabilization in field care?
  • Which symptom combination is associated with an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction?
  • Which intervention is included in the treatment of shock?
  • Which action should occur for casualties with altered mental status regarding weapons, communications, and sensitive items?
  • Which of the following is listed as a key factor influencing TCCC?
  • What is the standard dosing of Acetaminophen for mild to moderate pain?
  • What is the purpose of the Military Acute Concussion Evaluation (MACE) in a field setting?
  • Which term is the same as ITClamp?
  • What is the maximum total dose of Ondansetron within an 8-hour block?
  • Which statement about securing a rigid eye shield is accurate?
  • Which finding indicates an open fracture?
  • In Phase 3 (TACEVAC), which activity is performed?
  • If casualty is conscious, place in what position?
  • What does the AVPU scale assess?
  • Which condition is an indication for treating hypothermia in trauma patients?
  • For casualty in shock or respiratory distress, what is the initial Ketamine dose when given IV or IO?
  • Best approach to hypothermia in field setting is which?
  • Which of the following is an indication of a pelvic fracture?
  • During Tactical Field Care (Phase 2), which action is performed?
  • What is the recommended immediate action for a chemical burn?
  • In the 9-Line Medevac format, what is described by Line 1?
  • Among the TXA criteria, which is a contraindication?
  • For hemorrhagic shock resuscitation, which fluid is preferred initially?
  • Which item is NOT listed as an evacuation litter type?
  • TXA indications include which of the following?
  • How long do you have to put abdomen contents back into casualty?
  • What defines hypothermia?
  • Which symptom is associated with chest trauma as listed?
  • What should a CCP offer to reduce threat from the enemy?
  • What is a contraindication to methylprednisolone in this context?
  • Which triage category is typically evacuated within 24 hours?
  • What are the types of splints mentioned?
  • Which statement is NOT part of the documented criteria for tourniquet replacement?
  • What is the refrigerated shelf life of red blood cells?
  • For thermal burns, what is the correct initial management sequence?
  • Which description corresponds to a second-degree burn?
  • Which item is included in CMC contents?
  • Reassess __________ before and after applying a splint.
  • Which item is NOT listed as an evacuation litter type?
  • Which is an IO access method listed for trauma in the material?
  • Which is a sign of mild hypothermia?
  • Oxygen is recommended for patients with which condition?
  • When should a chest seal be placed on a penetrating chest wound?
  • Which statement about nasopharyngeal airway (NPA) is true?
  • Best treatment for hypothermia according to the material is which?
  • What is the common length listed for Needle-D sizes?
  • What is the usual diphenhydramine dose, route, and maximum daily dose in the described protocol?
  • What is the recommended documentation when performing a tourniquet replacement?
  • In an amputation injury, which steps should be taken?
  • Which category is most appropriate for a casualty needing only observation and minor care?
  • When establishing a Casualty Collection Point (CCP), which placement guideline should be followed?
  • The Military Acute Concussion Evaluation (MACE) is a screening tool used by the military to assist providers in diagnosing what?
  • The initial dose of Fentanyl OTFC is 800 mcg. This dose provides equivalent pain control to how many milligrams of morphine?
  • Which statement reflects an end point for fluid resuscitation?
  • Which action is NOT part of Phase 3 (TACEVAC)?
  • Polytrauma is defined as which of the following?
  • Which item is NOT a pelvic compression device?
  • Which set of findings constitutes the lethal triad in trauma?
  • Which of the following is NOT a junctional extremity?
  • What is the recommended dose and timing for calcium administration in this protocol?
  • Which wound type is categorized as non-life-threatening in the material?
  • Naloxone can be administered via which routes?
  • Which is an indication for replacement of a tourniquet (TQ)?
  • In a 1:1:1 transfusion strategy, which components are included?
  • Which method is listed as a cricothyrotomy technique?
  • Recovery position is indicated for which scenario?
  • Which of the following are true regarding NPA use?
  • Which site corresponds to the 5th intercostal space anterior-axillary line?
  • According to the Rules of Nines, what does 4.5% represent?
  • In an improvised tourniquet, what is the purpose of the windlass?
  • What are the two methods mentioned for administering antibiotics?
  • For bag-valve-mask use, which scenario is appropriate?
  • What is the shelf life of platelets stored at room temperature?
  • What is indicated for torso trauma or polytrauma casualties with no pulse or respirations?
  • Which is a sign of life-threatening bleeding?
  • How long does it take to pack a wound and hold pressure?
  • Where should the replacement tourniquet be placed relative to the original site?
  • An improvised eye shield may be made from which material?
  • Which device is indicated for narrow tract and junctional wounds?
  • Which triage category is Routine (24 hours)?
  • Which of the following is NOT a transmucosal route described?
  • Which route refers to medication placed under the tongue to dissolve?
  • Which of the following are considered junctional extremities?
  • For intravenous administration, ertapenem should be reconstituted with which diluent?
  • For burns up to 30% TBSA in a conscious patient who can swallow, which hydration method is recommended?
  • In field care, which approach is emphasized as the best treatment for hypothermia?
  • What is the repeat Ketamine dose when given IM or IN?
  • Which item is not listed as part of the JFAK contents?
  • What does MIST stand for in a MIST report?
  • Which of the following is listed as a cricothyrotomy technique?
  • Bleeding should stop in how many seconds when applying Junctional TQ?
  • What is the dosing for moxifloxacin as described?
  • Memory loss lasting more than 7 days is a criterion for which level of TBI severity?
  • In TACEVAC triage, which category corresponds to a 2-hour evacuation window?
  • Which statement about polytrauma is true?
  • How should a rigid eye shield be secured?
  • In field care, antibiotics are indicated for which type of wounds?
  • Which statement NOT a contraindication to cricothyrotomy?
  • The Combat Wound Medication Pack (CWMP) is used by service members who have what condition?
  • What is the recommended sequence of actions for electrical injuries?
  • In the 9-Line Medevac format, what is described by Line 2?
  • Phase 1 (Care Under Fire) includes which actions?
  • What is the immediate management for an anaphylactic or acute hemolysis transfusion reaction?
  • Polytrauma involves injuries to how many body systems?
  • JTS stands for which of the following?
  • When packing wounds, gauze should extend how many inches above the skin?
  • How long does it take to bleed out without control?
  • Which is a contraindication for airway management?
  • Which of the following is a type of life-threatening chest injury?
  • The abbreviation JTS represents which phrase in a military medical context?
  • What should protruding organs be covered with?
  • What is the landmark for placing a pelvic binder?
  • Blood sweeps target which body regions?
  • Which suction device is considered the best?
  • In trauma care, why is hypothermia a concern even in warm environments?
  • Which finding is a late sign of tension pneumothorax?
  • Which statement is an IO contraindication?
  • Which item is specifically listed as evacuation equipment in the material?
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